Name: 
 

Chemistry Exam 2009



Matching
 
 
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.
network solid
e.
tetrahedral angle
b.
bonding orbital
f.
VSEPR theory
c.
dipole interaction
g.
sigma bond
d.
bond dissociation energy
 

 1. 

energy needed to break a single bond between two covalently bonded atoms
 

 2. 

symmetrical bond along the axis between the two nuclei
 

 3. 

molecular orbital that can be occupied by two electrons of a covalent bond
 

 4. 

109.5ma004-1.jpg
 

 5. 

shapes adjust so valence-electron pairs are as far apart as possible
 

 6. 

attraction between polar molecules
 

 7. 

crystal in which all the atoms are covalently bonded to each other
 
 
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.
solvation
e.
electrolyte
b.
weak electrolyte
f.
colloid
c.
aqueous solution
g.
surfactant
d.
solvent
 

 8. 

interferes with hydrogen bonding between water molecules
 

 9. 

dissolving medium
 

 10. 

homogeneous mixture of water and dissolved substances
 

 11. 

Solute ions or molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules.
 

 12. 

compound that will conduct current in the liquid state or in aqueous solution
 

 13. 

compound that ionizes incompletely in aqueous solution
 

 14. 

mixture in which particle size averages between 1 nm and 1000 nm
 
 
Match each item with the correct statement below.
a.
dispersed phase
e.
Tyndall effect
b.
surface tension
f.
suspension
c.
Brownian motion
g.
solute
d.
dispersion medium
h.
emulsion
 

 15. 

dissolved particle
 

 16. 

mixture in which particle size averages greater that 1000 nm in diameter
 

 17. 

Colloidal particles spread throughout a suspension.
 

 18. 

phenomenon observed when beam of light passes through a colloid
 

 19. 

chaotic movement of colloidal particles
 

 20. 

colloid of a liquid in a liquid
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 21. 

Which of the following statements is false?
a.
Knowledge of chemistry allows the public to make informed decisions.
b.
Studying chemistry ensures that officials make correct choices in funding technology.
c.
Knowledge of chemistry helps prepare people for careers in soil science.
d.
Chemistry explains many aspects of nature.
 

 22. 

Which of the following was a major contribution to chemistry by Antoine Lavoisier?
a.
He showed that oxygen is required for material to burn.
b.
He demonstrated the presence of phlogiston in air.
c.
He encouraged scientists to form explanations based on philosophical arguments.
d.
He developed the science of alchemy.
 

 23. 

One characteristic of a scientific theory is that ____.
a.
it can never be proved
c.
it cannot be modified
b.
it can be proved
d.
it summarizes a set of observations
 

 24. 

How do conceptual problems differ from numeric problems?
a.
Solutions to conceptual problems involve analysis, while numeric solutions do not.
b.
Logic is not usually involved in solving numeric problems.
c.
A plan is necessary to solve numeric problems, but is not necessary for conceptual problems.
d.
Solutions to conceptual problems normally do not involve calculations.
 

 25. 

Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?
a.
air
c.
steel
b.
salt water
d.
soil
 

 26. 

Which of the following items is NOT a compound?
a.
baking soda
c.
sucrose
b.
salad dressing
d.
table salt
 

 27. 

All of the following changes to a metal are physical changes EXCEPT ____.
a.
bending
c.
rusting
b.
melting
d.
polishing
 

 28. 

A chemical change occurs when a piece of wood ____.
a.
is split
c.
decays
b.
is painted
d.
is cut
 

 29. 

Which action changes the identity of the substance referenced?
a.
melting gold
b.
running an electric current through copper
c.
corroding iron
d.
breaking an ice cube
 

 30. 

What happens to matter during a chemical reaction?
a.
Matter is neither destroyed or created.
b.
Some matter is destroyed.
c.
Some matter is created.
d.
Some matter is destroyed and some is created.
 

 31. 

Which of the following was NOT among Democritus’s ideas?
a.
Matter consists of tiny particles called atoms.
b.
Atoms are indivisible.
c.
Atoms retain their identity in a chemical reaction.
d.
Atoms are indestructible.
 

 32. 

The particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are ____.
a.
neutrons and electrons
c.
protons and neutrons
b.
electrons only
d.
protons and electrons
 

 33. 

The nucleus of an atom is ____.
a.
the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons
b.
positively charged and has more protons than neutrons
c.
negatively charged and has a high density
d.
negatively charged and has a low density
 

 34. 

Which of the following sets of symbols represents isotopes of the same element?
a.
mc034-1.jpgJ      mc034-2.jpgJ     mc034-3.jpgJ
c.
mc034-7.jpgM   mc034-8.jpgM   mc034-9.jpgM
b.
mc034-4.jpgL     mc034-5.jpgL     mc034-6.jpgL
d.
mc034-10.jpgmc034-11.jpgQ   mc034-12.jpgQ
 

 35. 

How is the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom calculated?
a.
Add the number of electrons and protons together.
b.
Subtract the number of electrons from the number of protons.
c.
Subtract the number of protons from the mass number.
d.
Add the mass number to the number of electrons.
 

 36. 

Which of the following equals one atomic mass unit?
a.
the mass of one electron
b.
the mass of one helium-4 atom
c.
the mass of one carbon-12 atom
d.
one-twelfth the mass of one carbon-12 atom
 

 37. 

Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a.
Protons have a positive charge.
b.
Electrons are negatively charged and have a mass of 1 amu.
c.
The nucleus of an atom is positively charged.
d.
Neutrons are located in the nucleus of an atom.
 

 38. 

Which of the following is necessary to calculate the atomic mass of an element?
a.
the atomic mass of carbon-12
b.
the atomic number of the element
c.
the relative masses of the element’s protons and neutrons
d.
the masses of each isotope of the element
 

 39. 

How many energy sublevels are in the second principal energy level?
a.
1
c.
3
b.
2
d.
4
 

 40. 

What is the maximum number of d orbitals in a principal energy level?
a.
1
c.
3
b.
2
d.
5
 

 41. 

According to the aufbau principle, ____.
a.
an orbital may be occupied by only two electrons
b.
electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins
c.
electrons enter orbitals of highest energy first
d.
electrons enter orbitals of lowest energy first
 

 42. 

Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the highest frequencies?
a.
ultraviolet light waves
c.
microwaves
b.
X-rays
d.
gamma rays
 

 43. 

The light given off by an electric discharge through sodium vapor is ____.
a.
a continuous spectrum
c.
of a single wavelength
b.
an emission spectrum
d.
white light
 

 44. 

As changes in energy levels of electrons increase, the frequencies of atomic line spectra they emit ____.
a.
increase
c.
remain the same
b.
decrease
d.
cannot be determined
 

 45. 

The atomic emission spectra of a sodium atom on Earth and of a sodium atom in the sun would be ____.
a.
the same
b.
different from each other
c.
the same as those of several other elements
d.
the same as each other only in the ultraviolet range
 

 46. 

How do the energy differences between the higher energy levels of an atom compare with the energy differences between the lower energy levels of the atom?
a.
They are greater in magnitude than those between lower energy levels.
b.
They are smaller in magnitude than those between lower energy levels.
c.
There is no significant difference in the magnitudes of these differences.
d.
No answer can be determined from the information given.
 

 47. 

Who predicted that all matter can behave as waves as well as particles?
a.
Albert Einstein
c.
Max Planck
b.
Erwin Schrodinger
d.
Louis de Broglie
 

 48. 

The wavelike properties of electrons are useful in ____.
a.
defining photons
b.
writing electron configurations
c.
magnifying objects
d.
determining the velocity and position of a particle
 

 49. 

In an s orbital, the probability of finding an electron a particular distance from the nucleus does NOT depend on ____.
a.
a quantum mechanical model
c.
the Schrodinger equation
b.
direction with respect to the nucleus
d.
the electron energy sublevel
 

 50. 

Each period in the periodic table corresponds to ____.
a.
a principal energy level
c.
an orbital
b.
an energy sublevel
d.
a suborbital
 

 51. 

The modern periodic table is arranged in order of increasing atomic ____.
a.
mass
c.
number
b.
charge
d.
radius
 

 52. 

Which of the following categories includes the majority of the elements?
a.
metalloids
c.
metals
b.
liquids
d.
nonmetals
 

 53. 

Of the elements Pt, V, Li, and Kr, which is a nonmetal?
a.
Pt
c.
Li
b.
V
d.
Kr
 

 54. 

Elements that are characterized by the filling of p orbitals are classified as ____.
a.
groups 3A through 8A
c.
inner transition metals
b.
transition metals
d.
groups 1A and 2A
 

 55. 

Which of the following groupings contains only representative elements?
a.
Cu, Co, Cd
c.
Al, Mg, Li
b.
Ni, Fe, Zn
d.
Hg, Cr, Ag
 

 56. 

In which of the following groups of ions are the charges all shown correctly?
a.
Limc056-1.jpg, Omc056-2.jpg, Smc056-3.jpg
c.
Kmc056-7.jpg, Fmc056-8.jpg, Mgmc056-9.jpg
b.
Camc056-4.jpg, Almc056-5.jpg, Brmc056-6.jpg
d.
Namc056-10.jpg, Imc056-11.jpg, Rbmc056-12.jpg
 

 57. 

What is the element with the highest electronegativity value?
a.
cesium
c.
calcium
b.
helium
d.
fluorine
 

 58. 

Which statement is true about electronegativity?
a.
Electronegativity is the ability of an anion to attract another anion.
b.
Electronegativity generally increases as you move from top to bottom within a group.
c.
Electronegativity generally is higher for metals than for nonmetals.
d.
Electronegativity generally increases from left to right across a period.
 

 59. 

Which of the following factors contributes to the increase in ionization energy from left to right across a period?
a.
an increase in the shielding effect
b.
an increase in the size of the nucleus
c.
an increase in the number of protons
d.
fewer electrons in the highest occupied energy level
 

 60. 

As you move from left to right across the second period of the periodic table ____.
a.
ionization energy increases
c.
electronegativity decreases
b.
atomic radii increase
d.
atomic mass decreases
 

 61. 

Of the following elements, which one has the smallest first ionization energy?
a.
boron
c.
aluminum
b.
carbon
d.
silicon
 

 62. 

What is the charge on the strontium ion?
a.
2–
c.
1mc062-1.jpg
b.
1–
d.
2mc062-2.jpg
 

 63. 

What is the formula of the ion formed when potassium achieves noble-gas electron configuration?
a.
Kmc063-1.jpg
c.
Kmc063-3.jpg
b.
Kmc063-2.jpg
d.
Kmc063-4.jpg
 

 64. 

What is the electron configuration of the iodide ion?
a.
1smc064-1.jpg2smc064-2.jpg2pmc064-3.jpg3smc064-4.jpg3pmc064-5.jpg3dmc064-6.jpg4smc064-7.jpg4pmc064-8.jpg4dmc064-9.jpg5smc064-10.jpg5pmc064-11.jpg
b.
1smc064-12.jpg2smc064-13.jpg2pmc064-14.jpg3smc064-15.jpg3pmc064-16.jpg3dmc064-17.jpg4smc064-18.jpg4pmc064-19.jpg4dmc064-20.jpg
c.
1smc064-21.jpg2smc064-22.jpg2pmc064-23.jpg3smc064-24.jpg3pmc064-25.jpg3dmc064-26.jpg4smc064-27.jpg4pmc064-28.jpg4dmc064-29.jpg5smc064-30.jpg
d.
1smc064-31.jpg2smc064-32.jpg2pmc064-33.jpg3smc064-34.jpg3pmc064-35.jpg3dmc064-36.jpg4smc064-37.jpg4pmc064-38.jpg
 

 65. 

Ionic compounds are normally in which physical state at room temperature?
a.
solid
c.
gas
b.
liquid
d.
plasma
 

 66. 

Under what conditions can potassium bromide conduct electricity?
a.
only when melted
b.
only when dissolved
c.
only when it is in crystal form
d.
only when melted or dissolved in water
 

 67. 

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of most ionic compounds?
a.
They are solids.
b.
They have low melting points.
c.
When melted, they conduct an electric current.
d.
They are composed of metallic and nonmetallic elements.
 

 68. 

When one atom contributes both bonding electrons in a single covalent bond, the bond is called a(n) ____.
a.
one-sided covalent bond
c.
coordinate covalent bond
b.
unequal covalent bond
d.
ionic covalent bond
 

 69. 

Molecular orbital theory is based upon which of the following models of the atom?
a.
classical mechanical model
c.
quantum mechanical model
b.
Bohr model
d.
Democritus’s model
 

 70. 

The side-by-side overlap of p orbitals produces what kind of bond?
a.
alpha bond
c.
pi bond
b.
beta bond
d.
sigma bond
 

 71. 

Sigma bonds are formed as a result of the overlapping of which type(s) of atomic orbital(s)?
a.
s only
c.
d only
b.
p only
d.
s and p
 

 72. 

Which of the following theories provides information concerning both molecular shape and molecular bonding?
a.
molecular orbital theory
c.
orbital hybridization theory
b.
VSEPR theory
d.
Bohr atomic theory
 

 73. 

What type of hybridization occurs in the orbitals of a carbon atom participating in a triple bond with another carbon atom?
a.
mc073-1.jpg
c.
mc073-3.jpg
b.
mc073-2.jpg
d.
mc073-4.jpg
 

 74. 

As the temperature of the gas in a balloon decreases, which of the following occurs?
a.
The volume of the balloon increases.
b.
The average kinetic energy of the gas decreases.
c.
The gas pressure inside the balloon increases.
d.
all of the above
 

 75. 

Charles's law states that ____.
a.
the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins
b.
the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins
c.
the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins
d.
the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins
 

 76. 

When the pressure and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant?
a.
the sum of the volume and temperature in kelvins
b.
the difference of the volume and temperature in kelvins
c.
the product of the volume and temperature in kelvins
d.
the ratio of the volume and temperature in kelvins
 

 77. 

As the temperature of a fixed volume of a gas increases, the pressure will ____.
a.
vary inversely
c.
not change
b.
decrease
d.
increase
 

 78. 

At a certain temperature and pressure, 0.20 mol of carbon dioxide has a volume of 3.1 L. A 3.1-L sample of hydrogen at the same temperature and pressure ____.
a.
has the same mass
b.
contains the same number of atoms
c.
has a higher density
d.
contains the same number of molecules
 

 79. 

At low temperatures and pressures, how does the volume of a real gas compare with the volume of an ideal gas under the same conditions?
a.
It is greater.
c.
There is no difference.
b.
It is less.
d.
It depends on the type of gas.
 

 80. 

Which of the following gases will effuse the most rapidly?
a.
bromine
c.
ammonia
b.
chlorine
d.
hydrogen
 

 81. 

The bonds between the hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a water molecule are ____.
a.
hydrogen bonds
c.
nonpolar covalent bonds
b.
ionic bonds
d.
polar covalent bonds
 

 82. 

Which of the following is NOT a common hydrate?
a.
Epsom salt
c.
sugar
b.
borax
d.
alum
 

 83. 

Which compound changes color when it becomes a hydrate?
a.
silicon dioxide
c.
copper(II) sulfate
b.
sodium chloride
d.
potassium chloride
 

 84. 

Which of the following mixtures is NOT a colloid?
a.
fog
c.
paint
b.
milk
d.
sugar water
 

 85. 

Which of the following types of mixtures exhibit the Tyndall effect?
a.
suspensions and colloids
c.
colloids and solutions
b.
suspensions and solutions
d.
colloids only
 

 86. 

Which of these statements is correct?
a.
Particles can be filtered from a suspension.
b.
A solution is heterogeneous.
c.
A colloidal system does not exhibit the Tyndall effect.
d.
The particles in a colloidal system are affected by gravity.
 

 87. 

Which of the following pairs of factors affects the solubility of a particular substance?
a.
temperature and the nature of solute and solvent
b.
temperature and degree of mixing
c.
particle size and degree of mixing
d.
particle size and temperature
 

 88. 

In which of the following is the solution concentration expressed in terms of molarity?
a.
mc088-1.jpg
c.
mc088-3.jpg
b.
mc088-2.jpg
d.
mc088-4.jpg
 

 89. 

The volume of 6.00M HCl needed to make 319 mL of 6.80M HCl is ____.
a.
0.128 mL
c.
281 mL
b.
7.8 mL
d.
362 mL
 

 90. 

What is the approximate molar mass of a molecular solute if 300 g of the solute in 1000 g of water causes the solution to have a boiling point of 101mc090-1.jpgC? (Kmc090-2.jpg = 0.512mc090-3.jpgC/m; Kmc090-4.jpg = 1.86mc090-5.jpgC/m; molar mass of water = 18 g)
a.
15 amu
c.
150 amu
b.
30 amu
d.
300 amu
 

Short Answer
 

 91. 

In which group in the periodic table do the elements have the highest electronegativity values?
 

 92. 

Give the electron configuration for the lithium ion.
 

 93. 

A balloon filled with helium has a volume of 30.0 L at a pressure of 100 kPa and a temperature of 15.0sa093-1.jpgC. What will the volume of the balloon be if the temperature is increased to 80.0sa093-2.jpgC and the pressure remains constant?
 

 94. 

What is the percentage of water in the hydrate CoClsa094-1.jpg sa094-2.jpg 6sa094-3.jpg?
 

 95. 

Calculate the molality of a solution prepared by dissolving 175 g of KNOsa095-1.jpg in 750 g of water.
 

Numeric Response
 

 96. 

How many traditional areas of study can chemistry be divided into?

 

 97. 

How many steps are involved in solving numeric problems?

 

 98. 

About how many more times massive is a proton than an electron?

 

 99. 

What is the total number of subatomic particles in the nucleus of an atom of nr099-1.jpgBi?

 

 100. 

Determine the number of electrons in an atom of iridium.

 

 101. 

What is the atomic number for an element with 41 neutrons and a mass number of 80?

 

 102. 

How many electrons does the ion Canr102-1.jpg contain?

 

 103. 

How many valence electrons does an iodine atom have?

 

 104. 

How many electrons does a nitrogen atom need to gain in order to attain a noble-gas electron configuration?

 

 105. 

How many nonbonding pairs of electrons are in a water molecule?

 



 
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